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The Defence Toolkit – September 13, 2025: Mens Rea and Failure Offences

Posted On 13 September 2025

This week’s top three summaries: R v Emereuwa, 2025 SKCA 83: #failure and intent, R v Dos Santos, 2025 ONCA 598: 11(b) #mistrial, R v DM, 2025 ABCJ 134: #alibi

R v Emereuwa, 2025 SKCA 83

[September 3, 2025] Statutory Interpretation of Required Mens Rea and Failure to Provide a Breath Sample [Reasons by Kilback J.A. with Leurer C.J.S and Drennan J.A. concurring]

AUTHOR’S NOTE: The Saskatchewan Court of Appeal clarified that “true crimes” require both intent to commit the prohibited act and knowledge (or wilful blindness) of the relevant circumstances. Interpreting s. 320.15(1), the Court stressed the need to preserve the distinction between criminal offences and other types of legal violations. Accordingly, liability for failing to comply with a breath demand requires proof not only that the accused knew a demand was made, but also that they intended to fail to provide a proper sample, absent explicit statutory language to the contrary.

Key Takeaway: True crimes like failing to comply with a breath demand require proof of intent, not just knowledge of the demand.


I. INTRODUCTION

[1] The central issue in this appeal is whether the mens rea for failing to comply with a breath demand contrary to s. 320.15(1) of the Criminal Code requires proof that the accused intended to fail to provide a suitable sample or merely proof that the accused knew a demand had been made.

[4] The appeal judge identified three competing lines of authority on the culpable state of mind required to ground a conviction under s. 320.15(1). The first says the Crown must prove that the accused intentionally failed to provide a suitable sample (see R v Lewko, 2002 SKCA 121, 169 CCC (3d) 359). The second says the Crown must prove only that the accused knew a demand had been made and the fact that a failure occurred (see Sweet and R v Bradley, 2022 NBQB 31, 91 MVR (7th) 230).

[7] For the reasons that follow, I would grant leave, allow the appeal, and order a new trial. In my view, the mens rea for failing to comply with a breath demand contrary to s. 320.15(1) of the Criminal Code requires proof that the accused intended to fail to provide a suitable sample.

II. BACKGROUND

A. The trial decision

IV. ANALYSIS

A. The required mens rea

[27] Determining whether the mens rea for failing to provide a breath sample under s. 320.15(1) is satisfied by proof of intention or knowledge is an exercise in statutory interpretation (R v A.D.H., 2013 SCC 28 at paras 19–21, [2013] 2 SCR 269).

[28] Under the modern principle of statutory interpretation, words used in legislation are considered “in their entire context and in their grammatical and ordinary sense harmoniously with the scheme of the Act, the object of the Act, and the intention of Parliament” (Rizzo & Rizzo Shoes Ltd. (Re), [1998] 1 SCR 27 at para 21, quoting E.A. Driedger, Construction of Statutes, 2d ed (Toronto: Butterworths, 1983) at 87; Bell ExpressVu Limited Partnership v Rex, 2002 SCC 42 at para 26, [2002] 2 SCR 559; Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration) v Vavilov, 2019 SCC 65 at para 117, [2019] 4 SCR 653; Piekut v Canada (National Revenue), 2025 SCC 13 at para 42, 502 DLR (4th) 1). A court is required to interpret statutory language “according to a textual, contextual and purposive analysis to find a meaning that is harmonious with the Act as a whole” (Canada Trustco Mortgage Co. v Canada, 2005 SCC 54 at para 10, [2005] 2 SCR 601; R v Downes, 2023 SCC 6 at para 24, 423 CCC (3d) 279; Piekut at para 43).

[29] The text, context, and purpose of legislation do not have to be addressed separately or in a formulaic way in the interpretive exercise, “since these elements are often closely related or interdependent”(Piekut at para 43; Bell ExpressVu at para 31; Chieu v Canada (Minister of Citizenship and Immigration), 2002 SCC 3 at para 28, [2002] 1 SCR 84). For this reason, aspects of my contextual analysis also contain textual elements relevant to the interpretation of s. 320.15(1).

[32] In my view, the mens rea for failing to provide a breath sample contrary to s. 320.15(1) of the Criminal Code requires proof that the accused intended to fail to provide a suitable sample. I come to this conclusion for three main reasons: (i) this interpretation embodies basic criminal law principles, which form an important part of the legislative context; (ii) it is supported by textual analysis; and (iii) it is justifiable from a purposive perspective. Respectfully, the rationale for the contrary conclusion set out in in Sweet and Bradley is not persuasive.

[38] The competing lines of authority were summarized by Paciocco J. (as he then was) in R v Soucy, 2014 ONCJ 497, 316 CCC (3d) 153. As already noted, the Lewko position requires the Crown to prove that the accused intentionally failed to provide a suitable breath sample. A person who “fails to provide an appropriate sample despite genuinely attempting to do so, will not have committed the actus reus of the offence” (at para 29). The Lewko position has been adopted in various cases (see for example: R v Nahnybida, 2018 SKCA 72 at para 64, 365 CCC (3d) 209; R v Slater, 2015 ONCJ 155 at paras 25–35, 76 MVR (6th) 345; R v Burgess, 2021 NSPC 34 at para 15; R v Sullivan, 2001 CarswellOnt 5652 at para 16 (WL) (Ct J); R v Greenshields, 2014 ONCJ 35 at paras 8–11; R v Fan, 2018 ONCJ 924 at paras 35–37).

[39] The Porter position requires the Crown to prove only that the accused had knowledge or awareness of the prohibited act of failing to provide a suitable sample. On this mens rea standard, “it is no answer that the accused tried their best to furnish a sample unless they prove, on the balance of probabilities, that they had a ‘reasonable excuse’ for failing” (Soucy at para 30, quoting Porter at para 38). The Porter position has also been adopted in various cases (see for example: R v Spracklin, 2013 ABPC 55 at paras 74–75, 551 AR 323; R v Mercado, 2013 ABPC 330 at paras 63–64, 578 AR 366; R v Botan, 2019 ABPC 261 at paras 19–21, 56 MVR (7th) 67; R v Lemay, 2013 ABPC 144 at paras 101–105, 563 AR 300; R v Pletsas, 2014 ONSC 1568 at para 67; R v Vethavanam, 2013 ONCJ 266 at para 45; R v Doiron, 2023 BCPC 127 at paras 39–42; and R v Malik Sher, 2023 ONCJ 554 at para 79).

[43] I recognize several courts have reasoned that the addition of the word “knowing” in the 2018 amendments indicates Parliament’s attempt to settle the debate as to the mens rea for failing to comply with a breath demand in favour of the Porter position (see for example: R v Di Luciano, 2024 ONSC 3254 at paras 69–70; R v MacKintosh, 2025 NSSC 51 at paras 62–64; R v McKinnon, 2020 ABPC 86 at paras 21–22, 13 Alta LR (7th) 312; R v Daytec, 2021 ABPC 48 at paras 55–58; R v Turnbull, 2022 ABQB 42 at para 25, 51 Alta LR (7th) 242; Bradley at paras 157–184; Sweet at paras 80–81). However, as discussed below, the better approach to the interpretative exercise is to examine the required mental element in terms of the differences between knowledge and intention, not general or specific intent.

b. The mens rea is subjective

[44] Before reviewing the differences between knowledge and intention, I will explain why I agree with the parties that the mens rea of the offence created by s. 320.15(1) is subjective and disagree with the contrary interpretation expressed in Bradley and Sweet that the 2018 amendments point to an objective mens rea.

[46] The presumption of subjective fault is a principle of statutory interpretation forming part of the context that must be considered under the modern principle (see A.D.H. at para 28). Parliament must be taken to “know that this presumption will likely be applied unless some contrary intention is evident in the legislation” (A.D.H. at para 26). It is not an absolute rule, but rather captures what was assumed to be present in the mind of Parliament when enacting the provision (see A.D.H. at para 26; Zora at para 33). The presumption of subjective fault will only be overridden by “clear expressions of a different legislative intent” (A.D.H. at paras 27–29; Zora at para 33).

[47] In general terms, a subjective mens rea focuses on what the accused person actually had in their own mind at the time the offence is alleged to have been committed (see A.D.H. at para 3; R v Zora, 2020 SCC 14 at para 29, [2020] 2 SCR 3; R v Hundal, [1993] 1 SCR 867 at 882). Subjective fault assesses whether the accused intended the consequences of their conduct or, knowing or being wilfully blind to the probable consequences of their conduct, proceeded recklessly in the face of risk (R v Creighton, [1993] 3 SCR 3 at 58; R v Sault Ste. Marie, [1978] 2 SCR 1299 at 1309–1310; Hundal at 882; R v Martineau, [1990] 2 SCR 633 at 645). Ultimately, “[w]hat is vital is that this accused given his personality, situation and circumstances, actually intended, knew or foresaw the consequence and/or circumstance as the case may be. Whether he ‘could’, ‘ought’ or ‘should’ have foreseen or whether a reasonable person would have foreseen is not the relevant criterion of liability” (Hundal at 882–883, emphasis in original; Zora at para 29).

[49] In Sweet, the Court adopted the conclusion in Bradley that the mens rea for failing to provide a breath sample under s. 320.15(1) is objective. Respectfully, there are two aspects of the reasoning in Bradley on this point that I find unpersuasive.

[51] Canadian courts have identified particular words that tend to be indicative of a particular standard of fault. For example, the words “wilful”, “knowing”, “knowledge”, “intent” and “reckless” suggest a subjective standard of fault (A.D.H. at para 49; Zora at para 38; Creighton at 58; Sault Ste. Marie at 1303). Meanwhile, words such as “dangerous”, “negligence”, “due diligence”, “careless”, “reasonable”, and “duty” tend to indicate an objective standard of fault (A.D.H. at paras 58, 73; Zora at para 41). Here, as recognized in Bradley, the word “knowing” is indicative of a subjective standard, suggesting the need for an accused to have subjective knowledge that a demand has been made.

[52] However, the fact that the word “knowing” in the text of s. 320.15(1) does not relate to the failure to comply and the absence of the word “wilfully” in relation to that failure, is not determinative of an objective mens rea. The absence of express words indicating a subjective intent in relation to the act element of an offence (here, the failure to comply), does not, on its own, displace the presumption of subjective fault. This was made clear in Zora, where the Supreme Court was interpreting former s. 145(3) of the Criminal Code, which created the offence of failing to comply with a condition of an undertaking or recognizance:

[38] In evaluating whether there is an expression of legislative intent that displaces the presumption of subjective fault, courts look both to the words included in the provision as well as the words that were not (A.D.H., at para. 42). It is true that s. 145(3) does not contain express words indicating a subjective intent, like “wilful” or “knowing”. However, this absence cannot, on its own, displace the presumption. In fact, it is precisely when the words and context are neutral that the presumption of subjective mens rea operates with full effect.

(Emphasis added)

[53] See also R v Mtonga, 2021 ONSC 1482 at para 47, 69 CR (7th) 342; R v Tikhonov, 2014 ONCJ 347 at para 14.

[56] In Bradley, it was noted that there are several categories of offences where there is a duty of care between the accused and victim requiring an objective mens rea. Among the examples cited are the offences of failing to provide the necessaries of life to a child (involving the breach of a duty to do so) and carelessly storing firearms (involving the breach of a duty to store firearms safely). The Court reasoned that since a person has a duty to comply with a lawful breath demand, and a failure to comply is a breach of that duty, the offence is therefore “duty-based”, attracting an objective mens rea. It was held that “[a] person to whom a lawful demand has been made is expected to do what a reasonable person would do in the same circumstances. That is, follow the instructions given and blow into a machine until the officer determines that a suitable sample has been provided” (at para 152). On this basis, the Court concluded that the mens rea is objective and that “it matters not what was in the mind of the specific accused” (at para 156).

[57] This type of reasoning was rejected in Zora. In relation to the offence of failing to comply with a condition of an undertaking or recognizance, the majority of the Court of Appeal found the words “bound to comply” and “fails” indicated that the accused had a legal obligation to meet an objectively determined standard of conduct, and that the offence therefore required objective mens rea (at para 39). The Supreme Court disagreed, explaining that not all compliance obligations create duty-based offences involving objective fault:

[43] The Minister saying that a provision that establishes a criminal offence imposes a responsibility or duty in a general sense does not make it the type of duty-based offence at issue in Naglik. The wording in s. 145(3) speaks only of being bound to comply and failing to do so. This wording does not displace the presumption of subjective intent. All criminal prohibitions impose obligations to act or not in particular ways and inflict sanctions when people fail to comply. If accepted, the Crown’s argument and the Court of Appeal’s conclusion would make all compliance obligations into “duties” and all crimes into dutybased offences. However, the duty-based offences discussed in A.D.H. are a far more limited category and are directed at legal duties very different from the obligation of an accused to comply with the conditions of a judicial order.

[58] Duty-based offences, such as failing to provide the necessaries of life, are offences based on a failure to perform specific “legal duties arising out of defined relationships” (A.D.H. at para 67; Zora at para 39). Whether an offence is duty-based requiring objective fault depends on several characteristics, including the nature of the relationships to which the duty attaches, the level of risk to the public when the duty is not met, whether the duty must be defined according to a uniform, societal standard of conduct, and whether applying such a uniform standard is possible and appropriate in the circumstances (Zora at para 44).

[61] As these criticisms illustrate, Bradley (and Sweet which adopts it) are not persuasive authority for the proposition that the presumption of subjective fault was displaced by the 2018 amendments and that the mens rea for failing to comply with a breath demand contrary to s. 320.15(1) is now objective. I agree with the parties that it is subjective.

c. Knowledge does not establish the complete mens rea

[64] For true crimes, the mental element presumptively requires not only an intention to commit a prohibited act, but also knowledge of or wilful blindness to the relevant factual circumstances (Sault Ste. Marie at 1309; see also La Presse inc. at para 66; A.D.H. at para 23; R v Williams, 2003 SCC 41 at para 27, [2003] 2 SCR 134; R v Latouche (2000), 190 DLR (4th) 73 (WL) (CMAC) at para 20). I agree with Paciocco J.’s articulation of the concepts of intention and knowledge set out in Soucy. Intention is a mental state that relates to the act element of an offence, while knowledge is a mental state that relates to the factual conditions or pre-requisites to an offence – such as the existence of a breath demand. As he explains, this understanding of these concepts is rooted in the Supreme Court’s decision in Sault Ste. Marie:

[42] With respect, I am also of the view that the position adopted in R. v. Porter, supra, that general intent can be proved by showing “knowledge or awareness” is wrong. As I understand the law, the mentes reas of “intention” and “knowledge” are distinct mens rea concepts that play different roles in the criminal law. “Intention” is a mens rea or required mental state that relates to the act element of offences, such as the act or omission of refusing or failing to provide a sample. Meanwhile knowledge is a mens rea or required mental state that relates to the factual conditions or prerequisites to an offence, such as the existence of a valid demand made under section 254. The respective role played by these mental states was made clear in the classic statement relating to subjective mens rea found in R. v. City of Sault Ste. Marie [1978] 2 S.C.R. 1299 at 1309-1310. There, Justice Dickson (as he then was) explained that:

“Where the offence is criminal, the Crown must establish a mental element, namely, that the accused who committed the prohibited act did so intentionally or recklessly, with knowledge of the facts constituting the offence, or with wilful blindness toward them.” [Emphasis by PJM]

[65] Intention and knowledge therefore generally apply to different aspects of subjective mens rea which, taken together, establish the mental element of a criminal offence. As stated in Sault Ste. Marie, the Crown must prove that the accused who committed the prohibited act did so intentionally or recklessly (the mental state associated with the act element of the offence), with knowledge of the facts constituting the offence (the mental state associated with the circumstances).

[66] At common law, knowledge of the facts constituting the offence alone could not establish the complete mental element of a criminal offence without a clear expression of legislative intent to that effect. This is why, in my respectful view, it is difficult to see how s. 320.15(1) can reasonably be interpreted in accordance with the conclusion in Bradley and Sweet that “[t]he offence requires only knowledge of a demand and the fact of non-compliance” (Bradley at para 168, emphasis in original; see also Sweet at para 79). Such an interpretation would be contrary to a fundamental legal norm of criminal law established almost 50 years ago in Sault Ste. Marie.

[70] Section 320.15(1) can readily be understood in a manner consistent with the traditional expression of the mental element necessary to ground criminal culpability set out in Sault Ste. Marie. Under that section, an offence is committed by a person who, “knowing that a demand has been made, fails or refuses to comply”. On a plain reading, the requirement of knowledge relates to the existence of the demand – a factual prerequisite for the offence – not to the prohibited act of failing to comply (see Bradley at para 140). This is entirely in accordance with the role of knowledge as a mental state as explained in Soucy and Sault Ste. Marie.

[71] In what would be a departure from this understanding of knowledge as a mens rea concept, the Crown contends that it operates differently in s. 320.15(1). It submits that this section requires the Crown to prove only that the accused knew that a breath demand had been made and that proof of an intention to fail to comply with the demand is not required. The Crown says that the accused’s subjective knowledge that a demand was made and the fact of a failed sample are sufficient in every case to infer that the accused was reckless in their response to the demand, and therefore criminally culpable. It says that, properly interpreted, s. 320.15(1) requires only knowledge of the demand and the fact of non-compliance as found in Bradley and Sweet

[72] I am not persuaded by this argument. As a starting point, the existence of the word “knowing” in a Criminal Code provision does not always mean that proof of intention to perform the prohibited act is not required….

[74] Thisidea that knowledge imports intention has been the subject of criticism, in part because knowledge that one is failing does not establish one’s intention to fail….

[77] As I see it, this argument does not support the conclusion that knowledge of the existence of the breath demand is the only necessary mental element of the offence because it also presupposes the existence of a reckless state of mind in relation to the prohibited act of failing to comply. As articulated by the Crown, the accused’s culpable state of mind in relation to the prohibited act is not absent, nor is it established by knowledge of the demand alone. It is inferred from the fact that the accused failed to provide a suitable sample after having knowledge of the demand.

[80] In my view, the mens rea of the offence under s. 320.15(1) requires proof that the accused had subjective knowledge that a breath demand was made. But that is not enough to establish the mens rea for the entire offence. The mens rea of the prohibited act of failing to comply with the demand is satisfied by proof that the accused intended or was reckless in bringing about a failure, not by knowledge or awareness of the fact the demand was made (see Soucy at para 43). This interpretation of s. 320.15(1) accords with the traditionally understood role of knowledge as a mental state that relates to the factual conditions or pre-requisites to an offence and intention as a mental state that relates to the act element of an offence.

[81] How, then, can the failure to comply with a breath demand be proved? In appropriate cases, intention or recklessness can be proven by applying the principle that a person who foresees that a consequence is substantially certain to result from an act intends that consequence. In Slater, Nordheimer J. (as he then was) explained that where a person tries multiple times to provide a breath sample without success, it can be inferred that they intend that result in the absence of other evidence to the contrary or evidence otherwise giving rise to a reasonable doubt:

[12] The decision in Sullivan is consistent with what I say is the proper reading of both Lewko and Porter and, that is, that, absent evidence to the contrary, or evidence that raises a reasonable doubt, proof of the requisite mens rea for the offence will be met by the application of the general principle that a person, who does something that has predictable consequences, usually intends or means to cause those consequences. Put more directly, evidence that a person who tries multiple times to provide a breath sample, and in each instance fails to provide a sample, gives rise to an inescapable inference that s/he is intending that result, absent some other evidence being present that would suggest an absence of such an intent, or at least raise a reasonable doubt about it.

[82] The same principle was applied in Lewko, where the Court relied on an inference arising from the circumstances of the case to conclude the requisite intent had been proven….

[87] As this discussion illustrates, an interpretation of s. 320.15(1) requiring proof that the accused intended to fail to comply with a breath demand better embodies criminal law principles than an interpretation requiring only proof that the accused knew a demand was made. As such, this interpretation is justifiable because it complies with accepted legal norms forming part of the context in which s. 320.15(1) must be interpreted (see Sullivan at §2.9; Alex at para 32). It also applies an understanding of the mens rea concept of knowledge that is consistent with the presumption that common law terms and concepts retain their common law meaning when used in legislation (Holmes at para 31; Sullivan at §17.14).

2. Textual analysis

[91] In this section, the phrase “knowing that a demand has been made” is a non-restrictive clause. A non-restrictive clause is set off by commas and says something about a preceding subject but does not limit or restrict the subject’s meaning. In contrast, a restrictive clause limits the possible meanings of the subject and is not set off by commas (See Canadian Guide to Legal Style, 2nd ed (Kingston, Ont: Thomson Reuters, 2019) at §3.4.6). A helpful example of the distinction between a restrictive and non-restrictive clause is found in H.W. Fowler, Fowler’s Dictionary of Moden English Usage, 4th ed (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2015) at 705:

Leech and Svartvik (1975) cite the following pair of sentences to bring out the distinction: [1] Children who learn easily should start school as early as possible; [2] Children, who learn easily, should start school as early as possible. ‘In [1] the relative clause is restrictive and tells us what kind of children ought to start school early. In [2], where the relative clause is non-restrictive, the speaker is talking about all children in general… The clause does not in any way limit the reference of children’

[92] While restrictive clauses are essential to the grammatical and logical completeness of a sentence, “[n]on-restrictive clauses, by contrast, are so loosely connected with the essential meaning of the sentence that they might be omitted without changing the essential meaning” (Bryan Garner, Garner’s Dictionary of Legal Usage, 3d ed (Oxford: Oxford University Press, 2011) at 888). Put another way, a non-restrictive clause “could be omitted without obscuring the identity of the noun to which it refers or otherwise changing the intended meaning of the rest of the sentence” (The Chicago Manual of Style, 17th ed (Chicago: University of Chicago Press, 2017) at §6.27; see also R v Plummer (2006), 214 CCC (3d) 84 (Ont CA) at para 21).

[93] Since a non-restrictive clause modifies the subject that precedes it, the phrase “who, knowing that a demand has been made” modifies “everyone”. It does not, however, modify the subsequent phrase “fails or refuses to comply”. The phrase “knowing that a demand has been made” can readily be omitted without changing the essential meaning of the section, which is that “[e]veryone commits an offence who… fails or refuses to comply, without reasonable excuse, with a demand…”. On a grammatical reading of the section, the inclusion of the words “knowing that a demand has been made” has no impact on the gravamen of the offence, which is a failure to comply.

3. Purposive analysis

[95] In general terms, “legislative purpose refers not only to the material goals the legislature hoped to achieve but also to the reasons underlying each feature implementing the scheme” (Sullivan at §9.26). A purposive analysis of s. 320.15(1) also supports the interpretation that an intent to fail to comply is required.

[100] When interpreting s. 320.15(1), it is therefore important to balance the broader purpose of protecting the public from impaired drivers embodied in Bill C-46 with other fundamental interests embodied in the Criminal Code. It cannot lightly be concluded that Parliament intended to go about promoting public safety by diluting the mental element of s. 320.15(1) to make prosecution easier. To do so risks eroding other fundamental principles of criminal law, such as the presumption of innocence and the fact that offenders ought to be held accountable for conduct only to the extent that they are morally blameworthy (see A.D.H. at para 27).

[102] I am unable to conclude that by adding the words “knowing that a demand has been made” when enacting s. 320.15(1), Parliament intended to change the requisite mens rea for failing to comply with a breath demand to eliminate the need for the Crown to prove an intention to fail and instead require only proof of the fact that a demand had been made. This would be a substantive change in the law and, as explained above, would require an interpretation constituting a material departure from the traditional understanding of knowledge and intention as mens rea concepts and how subjective recklessness may be proven.

[104] Accepting that the broader legislative purpose behind Bill C-46 was to promote public safety by restructuring the impaired driving related provisions, that purpose is not a decisive factor in the interpretation of s. 320.15(1), which must be read in harmony with relevant legal norms underlying the Criminal Code.

4. Conclusion on the required mens rea

[105] For these reasons, the mens rea for failing to provide a breath sample contrary to s. 320.15(1) of the Criminal Code requires proof that the accused intended to fail to provide a suitable sample. This conclusion is supported by a contextual interpretation of s. 320(1) that respects fundamental criminal law principles, and it is supported by textual and purposive analysis.

V. CONCLUSION

[114] For the reasons set out above, the mens rea for failing to provide a breath sample contrary to s. 320.15(1) of the Criminal Code requires proof that the accused intended to fail to provide a suitable sample. I would grant leave, allow Mr. Emereuwa’s appeal, and order a new trial.

R. v. Dos Santos, 2025 ONCA 598

[August 29, 2025] Charter s.11(b): Mistrials do not Reset the Jordan Clock [Reasons by Tulloch C.J.O. with J.C. MacPherson and Sossin JJ.A. concurring] 

AUTHOR’S NOTE: The Ontario Court of Appeal confirmed that a mistrial does not reset the Jordan clock. Instead, the circumstances leading to the mistrial must be assessed along the Jordan framework—whether the delay is attributable to the defence, arises from reasonably unforeseeable or unavoidable exceptional circumstances, or counts toward the Crown. The usual presumptive ceilings continue to apply.

Key Takeaway: A mistrial does not restart the Jordan clock; delays are still assessed under the existing presumptive ceiling.


A. INTRODUCTION

[1] This appeal calls for guidance concerning how mistrials affect an accused’s right to be tried within a reasonable time. I conclude that, unlike retrials following appeals, mistrials do not reset the clock. Rather, they should be assessed within the flexible and contextual framework provided by R. v. Jordan, 2016 SCC 27, [2016] 1 S.C.R. 631. Thus, unless the mistrial constitutes defence delay, the Crown must typically show that it is a discrete exceptional circumstance to justify abovethe-ceiling delay resulting from it. This approach guards against complacency by incentivizing both the Crown and defence to prevent and reduce delay while also accounting for the wide range of circumstances that may cause a mistrial.

[2] In this case, the mistrial was a discrete exceptional circumstance. It was an unforeseeable result of a shared mistake of law which caused delay that the Crown could not reasonably remedy. The appellant was not only tried within a reasonable time, but also received a fair retrial with focused instructions that corrected the Crown’s prejudicial question.

[3] Accordingly, and for the reasons that follow, I would dismiss the appeal.

B. BACKGROUND

[4] The appellant stood trial in May 2022, approximately 32 months after he was initially charged in September 2019. Due to the first trial resulting in a mistrial, over 36 months had elapsed by the time of his conviction in November 2022. For context, the procedural history is outlined below

[7] Before the appellant’s first trial, the parties agreed and the defence submitted that June 2022, 32 months after the laying of charges in September 2019, would be the adjusted Jordan date to account for the disruption of the pandemic. The trial began on May 30, 2022, within the adjusted ceiling.

[8] The timing of the alleged sexual assault was a live issue at trial. The complainant testified that the appellant may have assaulted her as early as late 2014, slightly before the date range specified in the indictment. However, the Crown and the first trial judge, McArthur J., mistakenly assumed that the indictment covered this period.

[9] At the pre-charge conference, the Crown and the first trial judge expressed the belief that the dates specified in the indictment were elements of the offence and discussed instructing the jury accordingly. This was legally incorrect – typically, these dates are immaterial: R. v. G.G., 2025 ONCA 574, at paras. 39, 42, citing Criminal Code, R.S.C. 1985, c. C-46, s. 601(4.1). However, defence counsel proceeded with closing submissions on this basis and told the jury that they should acquit the appellant because, on the complainant’s testimony, the assault may have occurred outside the date range.

[10] After the Crown asked to amend the dates in the indictment in response, the parties and the first trial judge realized that they are not essential elements of the offence, and the submission could not be left with the jury. The defence asserted that there was no other option but to declare a mistrial, arguing that a corrective instruction would destroy the defence’s credibility in the eyes of the jury.

[11] The first trial judge agreed with the defence and declared a mistrial….

[12] Within two weeks, the parties scheduled the second jury trial to begin on October 31, 2022, the earliest court-offered date on which the defence was available. Because that date occurred several months after the adjusted Jordan ceiling, the appellant brought a s. 11(b) application.

[13] The application judge, Rady J., dismissed the application. After finding that the first trial occurred within the Jordan ceiling, she determined that the mistrial delay was not unreasonable. First, she ruled that the mistrial, like a retrial following an appeal, reset the Jordan clock pursuant to R. v. J.F., 2022 SCC 17, [2022] 1 S.C.R. 330, and that the retrial occurred well within the reset 30-month ceiling….

[17] On November 4, 2022, the jury found the appellant guilty of sexual assault and extortion. He was sentenced to a four-year global term of imprisonment.

E. THE APPELLANT’S 11(B) RIGHTS WERE NOT VIOLATED

[20] I begin with the s. 11(b) ground of appeal. The appellant argues that the application judge erred in treating the mistrial as resetting the Jordan clock. The respondent Crown also concedes that this was an error. I agree. Unlike retrials following appeals, mistrials do not reset the clock. Instead, the Jordan framework continues to apply. However, this error does not affect the outcome because the application judge found that the mistrial constituted a discrete exceptional circumstance. I will first set out the applicable legal principles before turning to the facts.

(1) Legal Framework for Mistrial Delay

[22]….A mistrial does not reset the Jordan clock. Instead, the delay that follows must be assessed under Jordan. A mistrial is not automatically an exceptional circumstance either. Instead, the Crown must show that it was reasonably unforeseeable or unavoidable and that the resulting delay could not reasonably be mitigated as Jordan requires. This is a factspecific inquiry.

(a) Mistrials Do Not Reset the Jordan Clock

[24] Both parties correctly acknowledge that J.F. does not govern this case. That decision addressed retrials ordered on appeal – not mistrials. Moreover, in R. v. Way, 2022 ABCA 1, 408 C.C.C. (3d) 506, leave to appeal refused, [2022] S.C.C.A. No. 44, the Court of Appeal of Alberta expressly contemplated and rejected the analogy between mistrials and appellate retrials.

[25] I agree with Way that mistrials are fundamentally different. Unlike an appeal, a mistrial does not end trial proceedings or remove the accused’s charged status. Rather, it is a disruption that triggers the need for a new trial within the same process. Thus, the matter remains governed by Jordan ceilings, not by a reset clock: Way, at paras. 19-22, 30.

[26] As well, the one-size-fits-all approach of resetting the clock is a poor fit for the diverse circumstances which trigger mistrials. “[M]istrials come in many flavours” and cover a wide “spectrum of situations”: R. v. Clifford, 2022 ABQB 509, 55 Alta. L.R. (7th) 135, at paras. 25-26. They are often unanticipated results of developments that are neither party’s fault — arising from issues like inadmissible evidence inadvertently provided to a jury, the discharge of a jury member, inadmissible and prejudicial communications between a witness and a juror, the need for counsel to withdraw, or bias discovered after a verdict: R. v. Burke, 2002 SCC 55, [2002] 2 S.C.R. 857, at para. 73-77; R. v. Melvin, 2017 NSSC 149, at paras. 2, 87. But they also sometimes stem from the conduct of the Crown and/or defence — for example, through improper jury addresses, disclosure breaches, or 2025 ONCA 598 (CanLII) Page: 10 prejudicial or misleading trial strategy: see e.g., R. v. J.H.T., 2016 BCSC 2382, at paras. 155-74; R. v. Mack, 2007 ABQB 182, 458 A.R. 52, at paras. 77-80; Clifford, at paras. 26-29. This calls for more flexible approaches rather than a blanket response.

[27] Finally, resetting the clock after a mistrial would make it nearly impossible for an accused to establish unreasonable delay, since the accused would have to wait for the ceiling to be exceeded a second time: Way, at para. 25….

(b) Applying the Jordan Framework to Mistrials

[31] Because Jordan governs, I turn to how it applies to mistrial delay.

[32] The Jordan framework involves four steps:

 Calculate the total time from the laying of the charge to the anticipated or actual end of trial;

 Subtract any defence delay to determine net delay;

 Assess whether the net delay exceeds the presumptive ceiling; and,

 If so, determine whether the Crown has rebutted the presumption of unreasonableness by proving exceptional circumstances.

See Zahor, at paras. 60–75.

[33] Defence delay must be deducted. Accordingly, mistrials resulting solely or directly from illegitimate defence actions, post-mistrial delay arising solely or directly from defence unavailability, or mistrial delay that is waived by the defence may be deducted: Jordan, at paras. 60-66; Way, at paras. 33, 41; Mallozzi, at para.42.

[34] If the net delay exceeds the ceiling, the Crown must prove exceptional circumstances. For mistrial delay, this requires showing that (1) the mistrial was reasonably unforeseeable or unavoidable, and (2) the resulting delay could not reasonably have been mitigated: Way, at para. 35, citing Jordan, at para. 69.

[35] While mistrials may often fall within the category of discrete exceptional circumstances – unforeseeable or unavoidable developments that derail a trial – this is not automatic: Way, at para. 36, quoting Jordan, at para. 73. Contrary to the application judge’s conclusion, mistrials are not presumed to be discrete exceptional circumstances. Such a presumption would encourage complacency. Rather, as the Court of Appeal of Alberta correctly held in Way, the Crown must alWays discharge its burden of proving exceptional circumstances under Jordan: Way, at paras. 33, 39.

[36] Thus, a contextual, fact-driven assessment is required. A mistrial may constitute an exceptional circumstance where it arises despite reasonable diligence by the Crown: Mallozzi, at para. 41. However, the Crown is unlikely to benefit from this exception if the mistrial was its fault. Likewise, the defence risks deductions for defence delay where its illegitimate conduct solely or directly produced the mistrial: Way, at para. 33, citing R. v. J.T., 2021 ONSC 365, at paras. 29-30.

(2) Application: This Mistrial Was a Discrete Exceptional Circumstance

[37] While the application judge erred by relying on J.F., the mistrial was a discrete exceptional circumstance under Jordan as she found in the alternative. Thus, the delay was not unreasonable. I conduct the full Jordan analysis below to explain this conclusion.

[40]….As both the first trial judge and the application judge found, the mistrial arose from a shared misunderstanding of law, coupled with the Crown’s good faith mistake about the dates. That mistake influenced both the presentation of evidence and closing submissions. Thus, the mistrial did not result solely or directly from illegitimate defence conduct.

[43] I do not accept the appellant’s argument that the Crown was at fault because the first trial judge found that the defence was not to blame. Often, neither party is at fault for a mistrial: Melvin, at para. 87. The application judge found that was the case here. She was entitled to determine that the parties’ shared misunderstanding of law is the type of inadvertent good faith mistake that inevitably happens and can trigger a discrete exceptional circumstance: R. v. Cody, 2017 SCC 31, [2017] 1 S.C.R. 659, at para. 58.

[45] Once the issue came to light, the Crown proposed corrective options, including jury instructions and permitting a defence re-address. Defence counsel declined, reasonably concluding these would not cure the prejudice. By then, the only remaining option was a mistrial. Once it was declared, the Crown acted promptly to reschedule the retrial. These facts support the conclusion that the mistrial arose from a confluence of good-faith errors and that the Crown took reasonable steps to mitigate delay: Jordan, at paras. 69, 74.

[49] Accordingly, I would dismiss this ground of appeal.

G. DISPOSITION

[60] For the reasons above, I would dismiss the appeal.

R v DM, 2025 ABCJ 134

[August 05, 2025] The Alibi Defence and Its Effect on the Date of the Offence in an Information/Indictment [Honourable Justice A.A. Fradsham]

AUTHOR’S NOTE: While the date of an offence is generally not an essential element, Justice Fradsham emphasized that this changes once the defence of alibi is raised. If an accused has relied on the date in the charging document to structure their defence, a late Crown application to amend can cause irreparable prejudice—particularly where the defence has already opened its case. In this decision, the police’s inadequate investigation of the alibi, combined with the timing issue, contributed to the accused’s acquittal.


[2] DM is the paternal uncle of PM, a female who was under the age of 16 years when the offences of sexual assault (section 271), touching for a sexual purpose (section 151), and invitation to touch for a sexual purpose (section 152) were alleged to have been committed by DM upon PM at or near Calgary, Alberta.

Issues

[3] The ultimate issue is, of course, whether the Crown has proven beyond a reasonable doubt that the accused committed the offences with which he has been charged.

[4] The accused denied committing the acts alleged by the complainant, and, further, he denied being in Canada during the time period in which it is alleged that he committed the alleged offences. Indeed, he gave to the Crown timely and formal alibi notice.

[5] Consequently, subsidiary issues which must be determined as part of determining the ultimate issue are (1) has the accused raised a true defence of alibi?; (2) if he has done so, does that require the Crown to prove that the alleged offending acts occurred in the time period set out in the Information?; and (3) if so, has the Crown proved beyond a reasonable doubt that the alibi is false?

[7] Each of the Counts in the Information alleged that the offence set out in that particular Count was committed by DM “between the 1st day of January, 2011, and the 31st day of December, 2011, both dates inclusive, at or near Calgary, Alberta”.

[9] The accused provided formal notice of alibi to the Crown. The alibi was that the accused was not in Canada in the full calendar year 2010.

[10] On February 6, 2023, the trial began in this Court before another member of the Court, and before calling any evidence, the Crown applied to amend the Information so that each Count would now allege that the offence set out in that particular Count occurred “between the 1st day of January, 2010, and the 31st day of December, 2010, both dates inclusive, at or near Calgary, Alberta”. The accused consented to the Crown’s amendment application, and the Court granted it. The Information was so amended.

Law and Analysis

[19] prove that the accused committed the offences with which he is charged.

[20] Section 601(4.1)(a) states: “A variance between the indictment or a count therein and the evidence taken is not material with respect to (a) the time when the offence is alleged to have been committed, if it is proved that the indictment was preferred within the prescribed period of limitation”.

[21] In R. v. B(G) (1990), 56 C.C.C. (3d) 200, a case in which young offenders were charged with sexually assaulting a 7-year old girl, the Supreme Court of Canada stated (at p. 215):

“From the foregoing, it is clear that it is of no consequence if the date specified in the information differs from that arising from the evidence unless the time of the offence is critical and the accused may be misled by the variance and therefore prejudiced in his or her defence. It is also clear from Dossi and other authorities that the date of the offence need not be proven in order for a conviction to result unless time is an essential element of the offence. Accordingly, while it is trite to say that the Crown must prove every element of the offence in order to obtain a conviction, it is, I believe, more accurate to say that the Crown must prove all the essential elements. The Crown need not prove elements which are, at most, incidental to the offence. What the Crown must prove will, however, of necessity vary with the nature of the offence charged and the surrounding circumstances. Time may be an essential element of the offence in some circumstances….”

[22] At p. 216, the Court identified the defence of alibi as being one of the circumstances which make time an essential element of the offence:

“Another circumstances (sic) which has been held on the authorities to make the time of the alleged offence critical is when an accused defends the charge by providing evidence of an alibi for the date or time period alleged. To hold otherwise would be to deny an accused the right to make full answer and defence. …”

[23] At pp. 217-218, the Court gave this summary of the law:

In my view, the following conclusions can be drawn from the authorities:

1.While time must be specified in an information in order to provide an accused with reasonable information about the charges brought against him and ensure the possibility of a full defence and a fair trial, exact time need not be specified. The individual circumstances of the particular case may, however, be such that greater precision as to time is required, for instance, if there is a paucity of other factual information available with which to identify the transaction.

2.If the time specified in the information is inconsistent with the evidence and time is not an essential element of the offence or crucial to the defence, the variance is not material and the information need not be quashed.

3.If there is conflicting evidence regarding the time of the offence, or the date of the offence cannot be established with precision, the information need not be quashed and a conviction may result, provided that time is not an essential element of the offence or crucial to the defence.

4.If the time of the offence cannot be determined and time is an essential element of the offence or crucial to the defence, a conviction cannot be sustained.

Accordingly, when a court is faced with circumstances in which the time of the offence cannot be determined with precision or the information conflicts with the evidence, the first question that must be asked is whether time is either an essential element of the offence or crucial to the defence. It will only be in cases where this first question is answered affirmatively that the trier of fact must then determine whether the time of the offence has been proven beyond a reasonable doubt. If the answer to the first question is in the negative, a conviction may result even although the time of the offence is not proven, provided that the rest of the Crown’s case is proven beyond a reasonable doubt.

[24] In R. v. P(MB) (1994), 89 C.C.C. (3d) 289 (S.C.C.) the accused raised the defence of alibi. The procedural history of that case is relevant as it will assist in resolving the ostensible tension between the judicial understanding that “… children may not be able to recount precise details and communicate the when and where of an event with exactitude….” (R. v. B(G), supra, at p. 219),….

[25] In R. v. P(MB), supra,….

[26] At trial, the complainant testified that the events all occurred in 1982, and the complainant’s mother testified that the accused was with them in 1982. The Crown closed its case.

[27] The defence then said that it would call alibi evidence and undertook to provide the Crown with details of the alibi. The trial continuation was set to a future date.

[28] When the trial resumed, the Crown applied to re-open its case; the defence opposed the application, but it was granted. The complainant’s mother was re-called and testified again. She said that she had earlier been in error, and that the accused was with them in 1983. The Crown then successfully applied to amend the indictment so that it alleged that the offences occurred between January 1, 1982 and January 1, 1984. The accused was convicted, and appealed to the Ontario Court of Appeal. The Court of Appeal allowed the appeal and entered an acquittal. The Crown appealed to the Supreme Court of Canada.

[29] In dismissing the Crown’s appeal, Chief Justice Lamer, speaking for the majority of the Court, said (at p. 297):

…I am inclined to think that, up until the point when the Crown closed its case, the dates in the indictment could have been amended so as to make them conform with the period during which the respondent was living with the complainant’s family. In this regard, I would simply note that courts, including this one, have accepted that, in cases involving offences and particularly sexual offences against young children, absolute precision with respect to the timing of an alleged offence will often be unrealistic and unnecessary: B. (G.), supra, at p. 53; also see R. v. W. (R.), 1992 CanLII 56 (SCC), [1992] 2 S.C.R. 122, at pp. 132-34, and Re Regina and R.I.C. (1986), 1986 CanLII 4666 (ON CA), 32 C.C.C. (3d) 399 (Ont. C.A.), at p. 403.

The fact that an accused may have an alibi for the period (or part of the period) described in an indictment does not necessarily or automatically “freeze” the dates specified in that indictment. That is to say, there is no vested right to a given alibi. Alibi evidence must respond to the case as presented by the Crown, and not the other way around. Section 601(4) of the Criminal Code, R.S.C., 1985, c. C-46 (formerly s. 529(4)), directs a trial judge to consider certain factors in deciding whether to allow an indictment to be amended, including whether an accused has been misled or prejudiced and whether an injustice might result. It reads as follows:

601. . . .

(4) The court shall, in considering whether or not an amendment should be made to the indictment or a count thereof under subsection (3), consider

(a) the matters disclosed by the evidence taken on the preliminary inquiry;

(b) the evidence taken on the trial, if any;

(c) the circumstances of the case;

(d) whether the accused has been misled or prejudiced in his defence by any variance, error or omission mentioned in subsection (2) or (3); and

(e) whether, having regard to the merits of the case, the proposed amendment can be made without injustice being done.

Nowhere does s. 601(4) say that inability to rely on a particular defence is coextensive with irreparable “prejudice” or “injustice”, and nor can this be inferred from the language of the provision. Rather, such matters are properly left to the trial judge to consider in the particular circumstances of a case.

[30] ….Indeed, if the accused does not raise a defence which makes time an essential element of the offence charged, then discrepancies between the time period set out in the charging document and the evidence will not of themselves be fatal to the prosecution. However, if the accused raises a defence of alibi, there will come a point when the Crown will no longer be able to successfully apply for an amendment to the charging document in relation to the time period in which it is alleged that the offence occurred. That point is reached when the amendment would irreparably prejudice the accused in making full answer and defence because, for example, the accused has already opened his or her case in reliance upon the time period set out in the charging document.[Emphasis by PJM]

[31] As stated in R. v. B(G), supra, once the defence of alibi is raised, and it has an air of reality, the Crown is obligated to disprove it beyond a reasonable doubt…..

[32] In R. v. Gottschall (1983), 10 C.C.C. (3d) 447 (N.S.C.A.), at p. 455, the Court explained the defence of alibi:

The word “alibi” means “elsewhere” in Latin and has through

the years come to mean the plea that when the alleged act took

place one was elsewhere and therefore it was impossible for him to have committed the crime.

[33] In R. v. Allen 2017 MBCA 88, the Court gave this summary of the defence of alibi:

[8] The defence of alibi (Latin for “elsewhere”) arises where there is an air of reality that, at the time of the commission of the offence, the accused was not present at the scene of the crime (see R v Cleghorn, 1995 CanLII 63 (SCC), [1995] 3 SCR 175 at para 6). As Professor Wigmore explains, “the fact of presence elsewhere is essentially inconsistent with presence at the place and time alleged and therefore with personal participation in the act” (John Henry Wigmore, Evidence in Trials at Common Law, revised by Peter Tillers (Toronto: Little Brown and Company, 1983) vol 1A at 1719; see also R v Tomlinson, 2014 ONCA 158 at paras 48-53). To constitute an alibi, the evidence must be determinative of the final issue of the guilt or innocence of an accused by excluding any “window of opportunity” for an accused to possibly have committed the offence (R v C(TW), 2006 CarswellOnt 2284 (CA) at para 2; see also R v Sgambelluri, 1978 CarswellOnt 1223 (CA) at para 9, leave to appeal to SCC refused, [1978] 2 SCR x (note)). The requirements of an alibi are strict; evidence that an accused had only a limited opportunity to commit a crime is not an alibi (see Tomlinson at para 55). Once properly raised, the Crown must refute the alibi beyond a reasonable doubt or the accused is entitled to be acquitted (see Lizotte v The King, 1950 CanLII 48 (SCC), [1951] SCR 115 at 131).

[37] In the case at bar, the evidence of the accused is that in the entirety of 2010 he was not in Canada; rather, his evidence is that in all of 2010 he was in India. If that evidence is believed, then the trier of fact would have to acquit the accused. Therefore, I find that there is an air of reality to the accused’s defence of alibi.

[39] The complainant testified that the accused stayed with the family, and committed the alleged offences, in 2010.

[40] The complainant’s brother, who was called by the Crown, testified that the accused stayed with his family (consisting of himself, his sister [the complainant], his mother [who is also the mother of the complainant], and his father [who is also father of the complainant]), in Calgary, only once, and it was in 2012.

[41] The mother of the complainant, who was called by the Crown, testified that the accused stayed with her family in Calgary only once, and it was in 2011. Her evidence as to the date when the accused was in Calgary staying with the complainant and her family is the most compelling. She was able to relate the period of time when the accused was with her family in Calgary to a specific event (a wedding).

[43] The accused testified that between 2008 and 2012 he came to Calgary only once, and it was in 2012. He testified that in September 2012 he flew from India to the United Kingdom and then to Calgary. There is a blue-ink stamp in his passport which reads: “Immigration Officer (4559) 17 Sep 2012 Heathrow (4)”. There is also a red-ink stamp which reads (to the extent that it is legible): “Immigration…Airport Amritsar 17 Sep 2012 DEP”. The accused testified that those stamps were entered into his passport by immigration officials when he left India (the redink stamp) and when he subsequently arrived in the United Kingdom (the blue-ink stamp) on September 17, 2012. I accept his evidence on that point. The stamps themselves are hearsay, but his testimony about how they came to be in his passport is not hearsay, and I accept it.

[44] The details of that passport were provided to the Crown as part of the alibi notice. Detective Straub of the Calgary Police Service made an enquiry of Canada Border Services Agency (CBSA) which he described in these words: “The subject of the search was a request for disclosure from Canada Border Services Agency. The request was I sent a letter on January 12th of 2023 to search and conduct a CBSA traveller passage report for the period between January 1 st, 2010, and December 31st, 2011. I obtained from the Integrated Customs Enforcement System – I believe that’s a system that CBSA uses to query, and it’s in relation to [the accused] …So basically, it’s for travel history regarding entry and exit from Canada.” The detective testified that he was “unable to get any information about that.” No explanation for that inability was provided by the Detective.

[46] On the whole of the evidence, the Crown has failed to prove beyond a reasonable doubt that the alibi of the accused is false. Consequently, I have a reasonable doubt about whether the accused was in Canada (and therefore in Calgary) in 2010.

[48] I find the accused not guilty of the offences set out in the three Counts in the Information.

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